Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes an emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his left foot using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician and asks her to prepare the client for surgery. As the nurse enters the client’s room to prepare him, he states that he won’t have any more surgery. Which of the following is the best initial response by the nurse?
A. Explain the risks of not having the surgery
B. Notifying the physician immediately
C. Notifying the nursing supervisor
D. Recording the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes
Correct Answer: A. Explain the risks of not having the surgery
The best initial response is to explain the risks of not having the surgery.
Option B: If the client understands the risks but still refuses the nurse should notify the physician.
Option C: Notify the nurse supervisor if the client still refuses the surgery after an explanation of risks.
Option D: Record the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes if he still refuses after a thorough explanation.